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Summary:(Sample) Part I Listening Comprehension (25 minutes, 30 points) Section A Dialogues (10 points) Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 short dialogues. At the end of each dialogue, a q.

  • (Sample)
    Part I Listening Comprehension (25 minutes, 30 points)
    Section A Dialogues (10 points)
    Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 short dialogues. At the end of each dialogue, a question will be asked about what was said. Both the dialogue and the question will be read only once. After each question, there will be a pause. During the pause, you must read the four choices marked A, B, C and D, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.
    1. A. At 9:45. B. At 9:30.  C. At 9:15. D. At 10:20.
    2. A. Four days. B. A month. C. Four months. D. Two weeks.
    3. A. She asked him not to throw his cigarette out of the window.
     B. She asked him to drop the cigarette on the floor.
     C. She asked him not to look out of the window.
     D. She asked him to put out the fire in the forest.
    4. A. In the post office. B. In the library.
    C. At the bus station. D. In the bank.
    5. A. The shoes have poor quality.
    B. The shoes are too tight for him.
    C. The man thought the shoes are too expensive.
    D. He tried them in the store hurriedly.
    6. A. French. B. Arabic. C. Chinese. D. Spanish.
    7. A. Linda. B. Susan. C. Lucy. D. Linda's mother.
    8. A. He paints very carefully.
    B. He should ask somebody to help him.
    C. He likes painting very much.
    D. He should paint more carefully.
    9. A. They will go to play tennis.
    B. They will see a movie.
    C. They want to play basketball.
    D. They will attend to a ball.
    10. A. Teacher and student. B. Doctor and patient.
    C. Manager and clerk. D. Salesperson and customer.
    Section B News Items (10 points)
    Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 pieces of short news from BBC or VOA. After each news item and question, there will be a pause. During the pause, you must read the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.
    11. A. Less than twelve. B. More than twelve. C. About fifty.
    12. A. November 20, 1963. B. November 22, 1940. C. November 22, 1963.
    13. A. He got the prize for best actor.
    B. He shared the best director with Howard Hughes.
    C. He was given the prize for best drama.
    14. A. Because they sent many junk mails on the internet.
    B. Because they extorted millions of dollars from people.
    C. Because they are suspected of deceiving customers.
    15. A. Prayer services.
    B. Concerts and surfing ceremonies.
    C. Both of them.
    16. A. The tsunamis killed more than 126,000 people.
    B. European health ministers reminded the southern Asia government to be alert of the emotional scars caused by tsunamis.
    C. In Helsinki, a meeting was held to discuss how much money should be provided for southern Asia countries.
    17. A. In New York. B. In Pairs. C. In Tokyo.
    18. A. Because he called for a Europe-wide ban on Nazi insignia.
    B. Because he refused to attend to a fancy dress party.
    C. Because he wore a swastika armband and Nazi regalia.
    19. A. Timothy Workman. B. Akhmed Zakayev. C. British authorities.
    20. A. In Vietnam there are three people died of suspected bird flu.
    B. The virus has spread across the entire Thailand.
    C. The health workers in Thailand conducted stringent surveillance measures.
    Section C Passages (10 points)
    Directions: In this section, you will hear 2 passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear 5 questions. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A, B, C and D. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.
    Passage One
    Questions 21 to 25 are based on the first passage.
    21. A. Because some women were very keen to become astronauts.
    B. Because there was strong resistance from some people against having women in space.
    C. Because fewer men wanted to become astronauts.
    D. Because it was too dangerous for men to become astronauts.
    22. A. She was against the idea of having women in space at first.
    B. She was the first woman selected for astronaut training.
    C. She helped to launch three new satellites at the age of 35.
    D. She carried out a programme during her second space travel.
    23. A. In 1949. B. In 1948. C. In 1978. D. In 1977.
    24. A. Because she was popular with the news media.
    B. Because she expected to give history lessons in space.
    C. Because she was an excellent teacher and communicator.
    D. Because she made the students very excited.
    25. A. Two Women Astronauts. B. Mysterious Space.
    C. Travelling in Space. D. The Training Programme.
    Passage Two
    Questions 26 to 30 are based on the second passage.
    26. A. Working women who have no time for cooking.
    B. Husbands and children of working women.
    C. Working women who must travel on their own.
    D. Hotel personnel who must cater to working women.
    27. A. A greater percentage of women are advancing professionally in the U.S. than previously.
    B. Professional men refuse to accompany their female colleagues on business trips.
    C. Each year there are more female tourists in the United States.
    D. Businesswomen become successful by showing a willingness to travel alone.
    28. A. It provides space for dirty clothes.
    B. It allows for mobility.
    C. It can double as a briefcase.
    D. It is usually big enough to carry all business documents.
    29. A. Stay home and take care of their family.
    B. Encourage their husband and kids to be happy and have fun while they are away.
    C. Help their family learn to prepare food for themselves.
    D. Have their whole family take gourmet cooking classes together.
    30. A. In a magazine specifically for women.
    B. In a restaurant and hotel guide.
    C. In a news magazine.
    D. In a journal for top-ranking businessmen and women.
    Part II Vocabulary and Structure (5 minutes, 10 points)
    Directions: There are 10 incomplete sentences in this part. For each blank there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.
    31. Fine products and outstanding customer service are________to give us our competitive edge.
    A. which we need B. that we wish C. who we respect D. what we expect
    32. I'll be________double rooms on non-smoking floors for the delegates from Chicago, or has that already been taken care of?
    A. asking B. questioning C. requesting D. informing
    33.________as early as we did in the month enabled us to complete the project several days ahead of schedule.
    A. Meeting B. Meet C. To meet D. Met
    34. To get the best prices it is advisable________ at least 24 hours before you arrive.
    A. you book B. for you come
    C. you will take D. your purchasing
    35. Angela a while ago told me that she couldn't wear her________sweatshirt because it doesn't go with anything she has.
    A. very dark green comfortable
    B. very comfortable dark green
    C. very green comfortable dark
    D. dark very comfortable green
    36. Both lawyers asked for ________day to prepare their cases. Both requests were denied.
    A. other B. another C. each other D. some others
    37. The position of Russia ________its cooperation with Iran in the sphere of atomic energy remains unchanged, said official spokesman for the Russian Ministry of Foreign Affairs Alexander Yakovenko.
    A. regards to B. as regarding C. with regard to D. in regards
    38. Research findings________the argument that there are benefits for families considering a change to a fairer division of the pleasures and pains of family life.
    A. give help in B. offer aid to
    C. lend support to D. supply a hand in
    39.________, we believe that, in the interest of justice, the Department of Management will have no problem in joining us in expressing its full and immediate support for the detailed investigation being sought.
    A. That is the case B. That being the case
    C. To be the case D. The case is that
    40. The internal police witness statements provided graphic evidence of the motives of the mobs—at one point crowds of several thousand strong men roamed the streets of Notting Hill,      homes and attacking any West Indian they could find.
    A. plunging into B. breaking into
    C. seeking for D. searching for
    Part III Situational Dialogues (5 minutes, 10 points)
    Directions: There are 10 incomplete dialogues in this part. For each blank there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that best completes the dialogue. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.
    41. Beth: Where do you work?
    Mary: I work for a large company.
    Beth: What kind of products do you sell?
    Mary: Anything that helps people make money.
    Beth: _____________________    
    Mary: Financial services. I sell investment products.
    A. Congratulations. B. What do you mean?
    C. Thanks for your telling me.
    D. And what do you do?
    42. Clare: Can I help you?
    Caller: Hi. It's Kerr again. We were cut off.
    Clare: Oh, sorry about that._____________________Hold the line.
    Caller: Thanks.
    Clare: You're welcome.
    A. I'll try to reconnect you.
    B. Please, wait a minute.
    C. I'm afraid the line's busy.
    D. Maybe you dial wrong number.
    43. Karen: Good morning, Mitchell.
    Mitchell: Morning, Karen.
    Karen: I wonder if my proposal is accepted.
    Mitchell: _____________________But, you can come and see me if you have any good ideas.
    Karen: Thanks a lot.
    A. That's very good.
    B. Can we talk about it next time?
    C. Okay with me. D. It is turned down.
    44. Stranger: Do you have any rooms left for tonight?
    John: Yes, sir.
    Stranger: What's the room rate?
    John: Forty dollars a night.
    Stranger: Do they have a phone?
    John: _____________________
    A. It's very expensive. B. The phone is new.
    C. Some do, sir. D. If you have something, you can ask me.
    45. Betty: What were you upset about?
    Smith: It's a private matter.
    Betty: Why didn't you tell me?
    Smith: _____________________
    Betty: Wish you succeed!
    A. Don't worry. B. I don't want to say.
    C. You can't be interested in it.
    D. I was going to deal with it.
    46. Milk: _____________________
    Sam: I want to report a fire.
    Milk: Where is it?
    Sam: Mcleod factory on Lincoln Street.
    Milk: Thank you. We'll set out at once.
    A. Hello, sir. B. Police Operator 115.
    C. Speaking, Milk. D. Who is speaking?
    47. Customer: What kind of tours are there?
    Clerk: Here's the tour brochure. Please have a look.
    Customer: I want to fly to Seattle on Saturday morning, the 3rd.
    Clerk: Just a minute. _____________________
    Customer: All right.
    A. Seattle is a beautiful city. B. Have a goodtime!
    C. I'll find out what's available.
    D. How about Alaska?
    48. Jane: Hello, Linda. Do you know how to celebrate our English teacher's birthday?
    Linda: I have no good idea. How about Peter?
    Jane: He suggests holding a birthday party.
    Linda: What do you think about his idea?
    Jane: _____________________
    A. He must be a brain. B. I don't like him.
    C. My teacher will not be happy.
    D. All is prepared.
    49. Husband: I want to know why you feel so strongly about this.
    Wife: I have no reasons.
    Husband: I wish you'd tell me.
    A. I am Ok. B. There is nothing to tell.
    C. I must take care of myself.
    D. Don't quarrel with me.
    50. Teacher: Can you see the old type and the new type?
    Student: Yes, I can.
    Teacher: Could you tell me the difference between them?
    Student: _____________________
    Teacher: Well done!
    A. I like the old type. B. The new type is beautiful.
    C. I don't know. D. The new type saves electricity.
    Part IV IQ Test (5 minutes, 5 points)
    51. ABCDEFGH
    Which letter is two to the left of the letter immediately to the right of the letter that is three to the right of the letter immediately to the left of the letter D?
    A. B  B. D C. E D. H
    52. Which of the numbers should replace the question mark?

    A. 21. B. 22. C. 23. D. 25.
    53. The letters in the circles below have been scrambled. Which circle will not make a six-letter word?

    A. B. C. D.
    54. Insert the missing figure.

    55. If GIBE-FADE=81, then DICE-CEDE=?
    A. 53. B. 54. C. 55. D. 56.
    Part V Reading Comprehension (25 minutes, 35 points)
    Section A Multiple Choice (5 points)
    Directions: There is 1 passage in this part with 5 questions or unfinished statements. For each of them, there are 4 choices marked A, B, C and D. You should decide on the best choice. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.
    Questions 56 to 60 are based on the following passage.
    The earth is getting warmer. People burn coal, oil and gas and this produces carbon dioxide (CO2), methane(甲烷) and nitrous oxide(一氧化二氮). These gases, called “greenhouse gases”, stop the heat of the sun from leaving the earth's upper atmosphere and this makes the earth warmer, a process called “global warming”.
    A few weeks ago a group of scientists produced a report about global warming and the natural world. They wanted to find out if global warming was dangerous for plants and animals. The scientists were shocked by what they found. They say that during the next 50 years about 25% of land animals and plants will become extinct. More than 1 million plant and animal species will become extinct by 2050.
    The scientists studied some regions of the world with a very rich biology. These regions were Europe, Australia, Central and South America, and South Africa. Their studies showed that species living in mountainous areas had a better chance of survival because they could move uphill to get cooler. In flat areas, such as deserts, plants and animals would have to move very long distances to get cooler, so they are in greater danger of extinction.
    The scientists found many shocking things. For example, they found that half of the 24 species of butterfly they studied in Australia would soon become extinct. 60% of the species in the Kruger National Park in South Africa would also die out, and more than 100 of the 300 South African plant species they studied would also become extinct. One of the plants in danger of extinction is the national flower of South Africa, the King Protea. They studied 163 tree species in the Cerrado region of Brazil and found that 70 would become extinct. Many of the plants and trees that live in this region live nowhere else in the world. In Mexico, they studied 1,870 species and found that more than 30% of these were in danger of extinction.Global warming is getting worse. Many countries, particularly the USA and the European countries, are continuing to produce greenhouse gases. We will not know the true results of this for 25 years but if people continue to burn oil, coal and gas at the same rate as today, about 30% of all life forms will become extinct by 2050.
    56. Greenhouse gases are dangerous because__________.
    A. people burn coal, oil and gas
    B. they produce carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide
    C. they stop the heat of the sun reaching the earth
    D. they cause global warming
    57. Why is global warming bad for animals and plants?
    A. Because many of them will become extinct if global warming continues.
    B. Because it is too late to save many plants and animals.
    C. Because some regions of the world have a very rich biology.
    D. Because some regions of the world do not have a very rich biology.
    58. Animals in mountainous regions have a better chance of survival because_________.
    A. they have to move long distances to get cooler
    B. they can move uphill to get cooler
    C. there is no deserts in mountainous regions
    D. they live far away from people
    59. What could happen to the national flower of South Africa?
    A. It could become extinct.
    B. It could grow in the Kruger National Park.
    C. People could study it.
    D. 60% of them would die out later.
    60. What will happen if people continue to produce greenhouse gases?
    A. The earth will get colder.
    B. We will not know the true results for 25 years.
    C. 30% of all life forms will become extinct by 2050.
    D. We will know the results after 25 years.
    Section B Short Answer Questions (20 points)
    Directions: In this part, there are 2 passages. Each passage is followed by 5 questions or unfinished statements. Read the passages carefully, then answer the questions in the fewest possible words (not exceeding 10 words). Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet.
    Questions 61 to 65 are based on the following passage.
    If Caesar Barber dreamed of winning fame, he probably didn't think it would be due to his obesity(肥胖). But, since the 120kg maintenance worker filed a lawsuit against McDonald's, Wendy's, Kentucky Fried Chicken and Burger King last month—seeking damages for selling him food that made him obese—Barber's 15 minutes of fame are proving as painful as the two heart attacks he has already had. “Does anyone really believe that Mr. Barber was too dumb to know that eating saturated fat was less healthy than having, say, a fruit dish or a chef salad?” said Steve Dasbach, who is the executive director of the Libertarian party.
    Barber says that he was in the dark about the nutritional content of the fast food he was eating up to five times a week from the 50s onwards. Incredibly, he didn't stop gobbling burgers and salty fries after he had his first heart attack in 1996. He is now a diabetic with high blood pressure.
    In his lawsuit—the first of its kind in the United States—he contends that deceptive advertising misled him about the nutritional value of the food, until a doctor pointed it out. “Those people in the advertisements don't tell you what's in the food,” he says. “Now I'm obese. The fast-food industry has ruined my life. They said 100% beef. I thought that meant it was good for you.” Attacks on Barber's character and perceived IQ became a sport in the US media. Barber wasn't stupid, columnists and radio hosts joked, just out to make money by failing to take responsibility for his diet. More than 75 million Americans eat fast food every day. But who, the journalists asked, doesn't know that too much will make you overweight? “Mr. Barber honestly didn't know what the dangers were when he started eating fast food in the 50s,” says his lawyer, Samuel Hirsch. “The fast-food chains made no effort then, and little today, to inform consumers about the dangerously high fat, cholesterol or salt content of their food.” Hirsch says that his client, who has now gone into hiding, is not trying to make money but to get the chains to inform customers that their food is guilty of expanding their waistlines. However, not everyone in the US thinks Barber's case is a joke. The Physicians Committee for Responsible Medicine applauded the lawsuit.
    61. Why does Barber blame fast food chains?
    62. When did Barber start eating fast food?
    63. What do many people think Barber is merely trying to do?
    64. What does Barber want fast food chains to be more honest?
    65. What does “seek damages” in this text (Line 5, Para. 1) mean?
    Questions 66 to 70 are based on the following passage.
    Last week the Vatican published a 37-page document about women in society. The author of the document was Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger, the most important theologian in the Vatican. In the document, Cardinal Ratzinger writes about the typical characteristics of women. He says that women have the same positive characteristics as the Virgin Mary.
    According to the cardinal, women are humble, faithful and welcoming and they know how to listen, how to praise and how to wait.
    The document is an official Vatican statement, so it is probable that the Pope(罗马教皇) himself read it and perhaps made some changes to it. Many people will probably disagree with some of the things the document says. For example, it says that the fact that women can give birth to children has an effect on their personality. Women have the ability to give life so they are able to help others to grow and are able to protect them.
    The document is called the Letter to the Bishops of the Catholic Church on the Collaboration of Men and Women in the Church and in the World. In the document Cardinal Ratzinger also attacks ideas that are not good for “the true progress of women”. One of these ideas, he says, is the belief that some people think women are less important than men. This idea causes problems, he says, because it seems to mean that if women want to be equal they must become enemies of men. Ideas like this could have a negative effect on the structure of the family, according to the cardinal.
    The cardinal says that in this “war” between the sexes, the differences between men and women are becoming less and less clear. But the fact that women can give birth is a very important one, he says. This means that women become mature very quickly and are serious and responsible in their lives. Because of this they should be “present in the world of work and in the organisation of society”.
    The document received a mixed reaction from feminists and women writers. Erin Pizzey, the founder of the international women's refuge movement, said: “Catholic priests and bishops cannot marry so I don't think the Catholic Church should make statements like this.”
    But Catherine Pepinster, the editor of the British Catholic journal The Tablet, said many women would understand the feelings in the document. “It is typical of feminists to criticise this document without thinking. The document looks at differences between the sexes, but it also says that women have a big role to play in society.”
    66. The cardinal says that women are________and they know how to________.
    67. Women become mature very quickly because they can________.
    68. Some people say that if women want to be equal________.
    69. The “war” between the sexes means that________.
    70. Catherine Pepinster agrees with the document because she thinks________.
    Section C True or False (10 points)
    Directions: In this part, there is 1 passage followed with 10 statements. Read the passage and decide which of the statements at the end of the passage are true and which are false. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet.
    Questions 71 to 80 are based on the following passage.
    A is for All Blacks. New Zealand is notable for two things: sheep and having the most fearsome rugby team in the world. Rugby has been played in New Zealand since 1870 and the All Blacks first played arch-rivals Australia 100 years ago. New Zealanders are tough, densely muscled and bear-like—and that's just the players' wives (old joke, but the history was getting boring).
    B is for backs. These are the princes of the game—the creative space-exploiters and try-scorers. Traditionally, forwards are very fat and drink huge quantities of beer, and backs are slim, willowy, and probably studied classics at Cambridge University. But times have changed: in the professional era, which began about 10 years ago, everyone has gone fitness crazy, and backs and forwards all now look the same: fit, bronzed, 120kg, with rectangular heads.
    C is for code. There are two rugby “codes”—union and league. The game split in 1895 between the exciting, dynamic 15-man amateur game (rugby union), which by then was spreading all over the world—or at least all over the empire—and the dull, repetitive 13-man professional game (rugby league) which was played in parts of Lancashire and eventually spread to some of the less salubrious areas of Sydney. C is also for cauliflower ears—lumpy, misshapen ears that are an occupational hazard among players who spend a lifetime with their heads between other men's legs in the scrum.
    F is for France and flair—the two words go together as naturally as “England” and “mechanical”. France's superb victory over the All Blacks in the 1999 world cup was the competition's greatest moment, but they went on to lose tamely to Australia in the final. Sad to say, unpredictable genius does not win world cups.
    H is for the haka, the Maori war dance, which the All Blacks use to intimidate (胁迫) their opponents before the match. The haka involves all 15 players standing in a line and jumping up and down while they sing a song to the sun god (rather odd as rugby is a winter game and usually played in heavy rain).
    P is for penalties, the scourge (惩罚) of rugby. There are too many of them, and because they are worth a generous three points (compared with five for a try and two for converting it), the scoring system is distorted. A team with a very good kicker can beat a much better team that relies on try scoring.
    S is for scrum. This is the shortened form of “scrummage(并列争球)”, derived from scrimmage, meaning organised scrap. Sixteen men, eight on each side (all the forwards, basically), bend down in an interlocking formation and fight over the ball, which is placed between their legs in the centre of the scrum by the scrum-half. The scrum is essentially a boxing match without rules: it is home to punching, gouging and testicle twisting.
    T is for Tonga, which, despite having a population of only 100,000, dispersed across 169 islands, would have a very strong team if their best players didn't play for other countries. Tonga has their own haka, called the “sipi tau”, which is even more terrifying than the All Black version.
    U is for up and under, a desperate tactic that involves kicking the ball downfield and charging after it. This used to be Ireland's sole method of attack.V is for the Valleys of South Wales, which once produced marvelous rugby players but have now become besotted with football.
    W is for Wallabies, nickname for two-time world champions Australia. They've been playing like dingoes this year and have no chance of winning again.
    71. New Zealand is not a very strong rugby nation.
    72. In the past, backs were more cultured and intelligent than forwards.
    73. There are two types of rugby.
    74. France was the champion of 1999 World Cup.
    75. The haka is a type of traditional song and dance.
    76. The scrum can be very violent.
    77. Tonga does not produce many good rugby players.
    78. In the past the Irish team used to kick the ball a lot.
    79. Wales used to produce better players than they do now.
    80. The Australian team's nickname is the All Blacks.
    Part VI Cloze-Test (10 minutes, 10 points)
    Directions: There are 10 blanks in the passage. For each blank, the first letter of the word has been given. Read the passage below and think of the word which best fits each blank. Use only one word in each blank. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet.
    Put simply, an allergy is a disorder in which the body over-reacts to harmless substances which in normal circumstances should not p___81___ any reaction at all. An allergy can occurin almost any part of your body, and can be caused by just about anything. Mainly t___82___, allergies become evident on parts of the body directly e___83___to the outside world. Certain allergies occur only at certain times of the year, while o___84___are there all the time. Those that occur all the year round are probably caused by something you come into contact w___85___every day of your life, some seemingly harmless object such as your deodorant or the pillow you lie on each night. Allergies can o___86___ at any time during your life, but usually do so before your fortieth birthday. Sometimes the symptoms are s___87___ slight you do not even know you have an allergy, and it may take years for an allergy to become noticeable. It all depends on the amount of the substance to w___88___you are exposed and for how l___89___. Sometimes an allergy can disappear as q___90___as it arrived, without any treatment. Sometimes it comes and goes for no apparent reason, and with no regularity.
    Part VII Translation (15 minutes, 20 points)
    Section A English-Chinese Translation (10 points)
    Directions: Translate the underlined sentences of the following passage into Chinese. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet.
    Knowing that we want to make a change in our lives is the easy bit—deciding what to do and how to do it is more difficult. First of all, we must learn to take our dreams seriously and to trust our abilities. Old habits die hard, and fear of failure may prevent us from even trying something new.
    Making a fresh start takes effort—and time. (91)It is important to think carefully before you set off into something new, because it must be right for you and your way of life. You will need determination to overcome the problems that are sure to arise and the crises of confidence that you will face, so be sure that it's something you want to do — not what you think you can do, or what someone else thinks you should do.
    Before you begin to think of specific projects, let your imagination fly beyond the here and now and think about what, in an ideal world, you would really love to do. This should help you to get in touch with the real you beneath the daily worries that drag you down.(92)Don't let lack of money, time, qualifications or any other negative reasons why you cannot do what you want stand in the way of your fantasies. The time for assessing real possibilities will come later, when the various options can be considered in a systematic way.
    Imagining the impossible need not be a waste of time. Such flights of fancy can provide clues as to where you would like to be, or what you might want to work towards. Try the following exercise. Imagine for a time that there are no restrictions for you of time, money, age, status, ties, etc. Then select one of the following — MY FANTASY JOB; MY FANTASY DAY; MY FANTASY LIFE.
    Think through your chosen topic and write down your version of what would be involved. (93)For example, in your fantasy job identify things such as status, salary, job specification, style of work, the lifestyle which accompanies it, with whom you would work and in what surroundings. Your fantasy day is an invitation to list the events of what for you would be the “perfect day”. Where would you be, what would you do, and with whom, if anybody? Your fantasy life offers an opportunity to consider your ideal life as a whole. This picture would include the work pattern, combining work, home and social life, status, income, lifestyle, etc. Whichever topic you choose, put in as many of the particulars as you can so that the fantasy becomes a full picture.
    When you have written down your fantasy, think carefully through the following:
    ●What are my reactions to doing the exercise? What does the fantasy indicate about what I want for myself?
    ●What are the differences between my fantasy and my reality?
    ●How much of my fantasy is achievable at present or might be in the future? If I can't have it all, can I have some of it?
    ●What are the barriers to my achieving some of my fantasy and how might these be overcome?
    ●(94) What would be the consequences of my working to achieve some of the features of my fantasy, for myself and for other people?
    ●Would the pursuit of my fantasy be worth the possible consequences? What objectives would I like to set myself on the basis of this exercise?
    You then need to identify your strengths and weaknesses, update old skills or learn new ones. Look at your resources and, perhaps most important, what you enjoy and what you really can't bear doing. Be specific about your goals, and be careful not to try to do too much.
    (95) When you have decided what your goal is, and all the thinking, planning and preparation has been done, your fresh start can no longer be put off. Ban negative thoughts and seize the moment—fresh starters are determined to see the positive side of things and not to let problems, real or imagined, block their path. Good luck!
    Section B Chinese-English Translation (10 points)
    Directions: Translate the following sentences into English. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet.
    96. 素食者不吃任何鸡鸭鱼肉,并且他们还避免吃含有动物器官的食物。
    97. 保存东西的愿望现在已经不新鲜了,但是现在城市的变化速度之快、规模之大却使我们大部分人都在某种程度上受到了影响。
    98. 最幸福的人并不是那些拥有最好东西的人,而是那些能够物尽其用的人。
    99. 有时候,你仅仅在第一次见到某些人时就能对他们有所了解,比如你想和他们交朋友或者你不信任他们。
    100. 智力是指人们理解新事物及对新情况做出反应的速度,人们经常用逻辑测试来对其进行测验。
    Part VIII Writing (30 minutes, 30 points)
    Task I (10 points)
    Directions: Study the following newspaper advert. You have decided to apply for this job. Make notes for your letter of application, then write the letter no more than 120 words, paying attention to layout as well as content. Write your letter on the Answer Sheet.

    We are looking for enthusiastic and helpful receptionists (m/f) to join our team. Candidates should be wellpresented and able to speak at least two languages. Hotel experience not necessary as training will be given. Ability to get on with people and work in a team more important. Some evening and weekend work. Good conditions and rates of pay. Apply in writing and covering letter to: The Manager, Hotel Nelson, Queens Road, Rowborough RB2 4RN quoting Ref. EN2.
    Task II (20 points)
    Directions: What do these quotations mean to you? You should write a composition at least 150 words on the Answer Sheet.
    “If you cannot accomplish a thing, leave it and pass to another which you can accomplish.”—Al Kali (901—967)
    “It is not enough to have a good mind. The main thing is to use it well. ”—René Descartes (1596—1650)
    “If I have made any valuable discoveries, it has been owing more to patient attention than to any other talent. ”—Isaac Newton (1642—1727)
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